If employee benefits are 100% employer paid and the employer wants to bill the employee due to there being no earnings for a period, can the employer use Ben Billing for this purpose?
(Doc ID 2102746.1)
Last updated on JULY 07, 2020
Applies to:
PeopleSoft Enterprise HCM Human Resources - Version 9.2 and laterInformation in this document applies to any platform.
Goal
If employee benefits are 100% employer paid and the employer wants to bill the employee due to there being no earnings for a period, can the employer use Ben Billing for this purpose?
Solution
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In this Document
Goal |
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